Political violence: what is it
really? Can it be defined? LET US EXPLORE!
Our
illustrious textbook talks about several main categories of political violence.
First, there are civil wars, which are armed combats within the boundaries of a
sovereign state between parties that are subject to common authority (Samuels).
There are also revolutions, which are defined as “armed conflict within a
sovereign state between insurgents and the state, in which both the insurgents
and the state claim the allegiance of a significant proportion of the
population. Authority over the state is forcibly transferred from the state to
the insurgents.” (Samuels) There is interstate warfare, where two sovereign
states wage war against each other. The book also talks about terrorism, which
is political violence committed by non-state actors, and genocide, which is a
coordinated plan seeking to eliminate all members of a particular group.
I’m
going to examine the 1973 Chilean coup. In 1970, Salvador Allende became the
democratically elected president of Chile. Allende was the leader of the
Marxist party in Chile and as per his party platform, he began implementing
various Marxist policies. He introduced extensive social programs, nationalized
many banks, and most notably, nationalized Chile’s copper mines. The United
States was apprehensive about Allende and feared that he would establish an
irreversibly communist regime in the western hemisphere. To prevent this, the
US government funded opposition groups, produced anti-Allende propaganda, and
generally created an unstable environment. These covert efforts paid off when a
CIA aided opposition group led by Augusto Pinochet staged a military coup in
1973. The coup was successful and the Allende was forcibly removed from power.
Pinochet became dictator of Chile and remained in power until 1990. (Gustafson)
So,
how do we classify the Chilean coup? What kind of political violence was
committed? Superficially, the coup seems to be a pretty straightforward
revolution. It meets all of the criteria mentioned in the Samuels text. In the
Chilean conflict, both the insurgents and the state claimed the allegiance of a
significant proportion of the population. The authority of the state was
forcibly transferred and the insurgents subsequently brought about wholesale
political change. All of these point to a classic revolution.
However,
the involvement of the United States complicates this conflict. The outside
actor means that the Chilean coup was not a cut and dry civil war turned
revolution. The covert nature of the US’s actions means that it can’t be
classified as interstate warfare either. With interstate warfare, the
aggression between the two actors is declared and clear. This was not the case
in Chile.
The US’s actions have
elements of terrorism as well. It supported an insurgent group and used
seditious tactics to achieve its goals. However, the US is decidedly not a
non-state actor. Samuels’ definition of terrorism states that the insurgents
cannot be affiliated with any sovereign nation.
The foreign
involvement in the Chilean coup means that it cannot be classified completely
in one category. It has elements of a revolution, interstate conflict, and
terrorism, yet it fits into none of these groups. Samuels’ definitions of
political violence seem to be inadequate in this instance. These categories
work well for clean cut acts of violence. However, sometimes the line is a bit
more blurred.
Works Cited:
Gustafson, Kristian C. "CIA
Machinations in Chile in 1970: Reexamining the Record", CIA, Center for
the Study of Intelligence. Retrieved 21 August 2007.
Samuels, David. Comparative
Politics. Pearson, 2013.
Interesting case. Only question i have is what types of seditious tactics were used?
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